CBSE Class 11 - 12 English Grammar - Official Sentences

Official Sentences

Following sentences or phrases are commonly used for official or administrative work.

1. Arrangements are being made to ensure timely submission of reports.
2. Administrative approval may be obtained.
3. Competent authority's sanction is necessary.
4. Concurrence of the finance branch is necessary.
5. Exigencies of administrative work.
6. Explanation from the defaulter may be obtained.
7. His request be acceded to.
8. In anticipation of your approval.
9. Such action may be deemed necessary.
10. Repugnant to the context.
11. Show cause as to why such action should not be taken.
12. The file in question is not traceable.
13. Timely compliance may be ensured.

CBSE Class 7 - Science - CH3 - Fibre to Fabric (MCQs)

 Fibre to Fabric 

(MCQs)

Q1: Which of the following is NOT a Vegetable fibre?

(a) flax
(b) silk
(c) hemp
(d) jute

Q2: Vegetable fibres are made up of

(a) cellulose
(b) protein
(c) nylon
(d) rayon

Q3: Animal Fibres are made up of

(a) cellulose
(b) protein
(c) nylon
(d) rayon


Q4:  Which of the following process is NOT part of wool extraction?

CBSE Class 7 - Our Pasts - II -Ch 4 - The Creation of an Empire - TheMughal Dynasty (#eduvictors)(#Class7History)

The Creation of an Empire - 

The Mughal Dynasty

NCERT Textbook Solutions and Q & A

Taj Mahal
credits:openclipart

Q1: Match the following:

1. Mansab	(a) Marwar
2. Mongol	(b) Governor
3. Sisodiya Rajput	(c) Uzbeg
4. Rathor Rajput	(d) Mewar
5. Nur Jahan	(e) Babur
6. Subadar	(f) Rank

Answer:
1. Mansab - (f) Rank
2. Mongol - (c) Uzbeg
3. Sisodiya Rajput - (d) Mewar
4. Rathor Rajput - (a) Marwar
5. Nur Jahan - (e) Babur
6. Subadar - (b) governor


Q2: Fill in the blanks.

(a) The capital of Mirza Hakim, Akbar's Half brother, was __________
(b) The five Deccan Sultanates were Berar, Khandesh, Ahmadnagar, ___________ and ___________.
(c) If zat determined a mansabdar’s rank and salary, sawar indicated his ____________ .
(d) Abul Fazl, Akbar’s friend and counsellor, helped him frame the idea of ____________________ so that he could govern a society composed of many religions, cultures and castes.

Answer: (a) Kabul
(b) Bijapur, Golconda
(c) Cavalrymen
(d) Sulh-i-kul (or universal peace)


Q3: What were the central provinces under the control of the Mughals?

Answer: The central provinces under the control of the Mughals were:

• Lahore,
• Panipat,
• Delhi,
  
• Agra,
  
• Mathura,
  
• Amber,
  
• Ajmer,
  
• Fatehpur Sikri,
  
• Chittor,
• Ranthambhore and
  
• Allahabad.
  

Q4: What was the relationship between the mansabdar and the jagir?

CBSE Class 10 - KVS - SA1 - English- Question Paper-2012-13

CBSE Class 10 - KVS - SA1 - English- Question Paper-2012-13 

CBSE Class 10 - Social Science - SA1 - Sample Question Paper - 2014-15

Social Science - SA1 - Sample Question Paper - 2014-15

CLASS X

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT I

Time: 3Hrs		Max. Marks: 90
	General Instructions:
1.	The question paper has 31 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2.	Marks are indicated against each question
3.	Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are multiple chouce questions (MCQs). Each question carries one mark.
4.	Questions from serial number 11 to 22 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5.	Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6.	Question number 31 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion attach map inside your answer book.
1	In which of the following years Great Depression occurred in the world? (a) 1929 - 30 (b) 1935 - 36 (c) 1939 - 40 (d) 1941 - 42
	OR
	Who among the following improved the steam engine produced by New Comen? (a) Mathew Boulton (b) James Watt (c) Henry Ford (d) Graham Bell
	OR
	Which one of the following is correct about the Annual London Season? (a) It was meant for wealthy Brishers only. (b) Organised for the working class. (c) Organised for the exchange of news. (d) Organised for political action.	(1)
2.	Which one of the following groups of the countries was known as the 'Central powers' in Europe? (a) Germany, Russia and France (b) Russia, Germany and Britain (c) Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman-Turkey (d) Britain, Germany and Russia
	OR
	Which of the following group of industries were the dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialization? (a) Cotton and Metals (b) Cotton and Silk (c) Silk and Footwears (d) Footwears and glass
	OR
	After reclamation how many islands were joined together to develop the sity of Bombay (Mumbai)? (a) Seven (b) Five (c) Three (d) Ten	(1)
3.	Which one of the following soil types is the most widely spread and important soil in India? (a) Laterite soilds (b) Black soilds (c) Alluvial soilds (d) Red and yellow soils	(1)
4.	On which of the following rivers Sardar Sarvovar Dam is built? (a) River Kaveri (b) River Krishna (c) River Narmada (d) River Satluj	(1)
5.	Which of the following minority communites is relatively rich and powerful in Belgium? (a) French (b) Dutch (c) German (d) English

CBSE Class 10 - Science - SA1 - Sample Question Paper (2014-15)

Class X (Science) Sample Question Paper SA-I (2014-15)

Sample Q Paper by DPS Chandigarh.

Summative Assessment-I (2014-15)

	Sample Question Paper - Class-X - SCIENCE - TIME : 3 ½ Hrs	Maximum Marks : 90
	Instructions:
	i) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
	ii) All questions are compulsory.
	iii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in all the three questions of five marks category. Only one option in such questions is to be attempted.
	iv) All questions of section A and all questions of section B are to be attempted separately.
	v) Questions 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or one sentence.
	vi) Questions 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
	vii) Questions 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
	viii) Questions 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
	ix) Questions 25 to 33 in section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Questions 34 to 36 in section B are two mark question.
	Section A
1.	What are biocatalysts?
2.	Name any one metal which is found in its free state in nature.
3.	Suggest any two reasons which make the large scale usage of nuclear energy prohibitive.
	Name the type of the reaction and product formed when magnesium reacts with air or oxygen.
5.	a) Name the gland which releases thyroxin.
	b) State the function of thyroxin.
6.	State two differences between artery and vein on the basis of a) type of blood it carries b) valves
7.	Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy with one example for each.
8.	Resistances of three resistors are given as R1=20Ω, R2 = 40Ω and R3 = 60Ω. Calculate the effective resistance when they are connected in series. Also calculate the current flowing when the combination is connected to a 6V battery.

CBSE Class 9 - SA1 - Science - Sample Question Paper (2014-15)

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - I 2014

SCIENCE - Class - IX

Time Allowed : 3 hours -                                              Maximum Marks : 90

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.

2. All questions are compulsory

3. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section-B are to be attempted separately.

4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence

5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Sections-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.

6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks quesrons. These are to be answered in about 50 words each

7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.

8. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section-B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.

9. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills are two marks questions.

	SECTION-A
Q1.	Which micro-organism lacks any kind of membrane ?	1
Q2.	An ant travels from P to Q .and then moves from Q toR (as shown in the diagram). Show its resultant displacement in the diagram.	1
Q3.	Write the value of acceleration produced in a freely falling body.	1
Q4.	State the principle used to separate two immiscible liquids of a mixture. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the apparatus used.	2
Q5.	What is the function of s$xe tube cells and how are they designed to carry out their function ?	2
Q6.	State reason for the following: (i) Road accidents occurring due to high speeds are much worse than accidents due to low speeds of vehicles. (ii) When a motor car makes a sharp turn at a high speed passengers tend to get thrown to one side.